In message <61445.91.35.103.148.1173443152.squirrel_at_uv-E7uwBPHwVuLob6953LZwHF19CFa_tTG514DXug2YakvqmFcV1qqzhia7g0U1MjehbcfdgijEox7JcZasjK9CvJUuo1_ntf5IKetXLunYLuxwANdZ2JrGxnzGYupFQ19o.yahoo.invalid> "Joerg Baumgartner" writes:
>Slavery sounds rather civilized, implying a tradeable commodity. I
>wouldn't emphasize Vadrudi slavery over Praxian slavery - it is
>common, it happens to those who are weak and nearby, but it wouldn't
>define society in a way that it does for Fonritians or Vadeli.
>
>I know it is no longer a commonly used English term, but I prefer
>"thrall" and "thraldom" for the kind of subjugation practiced by
>the vadrudi.
What do you see as the distinction here? My dictionary implies "slave" and "thrall" are synonyms with the latter having a Scandinavian root. Property is always tradable although the market may be more or less developed in different places and times.
-- Donald Oddy http://www.grove.demon.co.uk/Received on Fri 09 Mar 2007 - 18:20:16 EET
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